The Wrath of God
Why do today's Christians have such ignorant beliefs taught them by the roman catholic church that even unbelievers can see are IGNORANT?
E.G. EATING HIS BODY AND DRINKING HIS BLOOD (I COR 10:3-4)
A "3 IN 1 GOD" CALLED A "TRINITY" (I COR 12:6; DANIEL 4:35)
JESUS ALLEGEDLY REPLIES TO NICODEMUS' QUESTION IN JOHN 3:4 BY SAYING "YOU MUST BE WATER BAPTIZED AS AN OLD MAN TO RE-ENTER YOUR MOTHER'S WOMB TO BE BORN AGAIN"
"DEAD SPIRITS" (ROMANS 5:12) HAVE "GRACE" AND "FAITH" BY WHICH THEY ARE SAVED WHEN THE DEAD HAVE NOTHING AT ALL (ECC 9:5)
THERE ARE (((TWO))) BAPTISMS WHEN EPHESIANS 4:5 SAYS "ONE BAPTISM"
JESUS DOES THE ONE BAPTISM (JOHN 1:33) BUT TODAY'S CHRISTIANS PREFER A MAN (MATT 28:19)
WE ARE NOT BORN SINNERS AND DEAD SPIRITS
THE KINGDOM OF GOD IS A FUTURE EVENT (MATTHEW 16:28)
BAPTISM INTO CHRIST MEANS BAPTISM INTO WATER ALTHOUGH "CHRIST IS SPIRIT" (II CORINTHIANS 5:16; JOHN 14:18; 26; I CORINTHIANS 12:11-12)
WATER CAN "WASH AWAY OUR SINS" (ACTS 22:16) WHEN "THE BLOOD OF HIS SON JESUS CHRIST CLEANSES US FROM ALL SINS" (I JOHN 1:7) WHO IS THE HOLY GHOST (II CORINTHIANS 5:16) FOR "WITHOUT BLOOD THERE IS NO REMISSION (HEBREWS 9:22)
I COULD GO ON AND ON BUT I'M RUNNING OUT OF SPACE!
WHY DO TODAY'S CHRISTIANS HAVE SUCH IGNORANT BELIEFS THAT DON'T MAKE ANY SENSE NATURALLY OR SPIRITUALLY?Religion & Spirituality1 month ago
Why did Paul put very little emphasis on water baptism in I Corinthians 1:16-17 if water "baptism doeth also now save us" (I Peter 3:1)?
Didn't Paul command us in I Corinthians 11:1
"Be ye followers of me, even as I also am of Christ?"
Why did Paul put very little emphasis on a water baptism in I Corinthians 1:16-17 if water "baptism doth also now save us" (I Peter 3:21)
When he said in I Corinthians 1:16-17 after he had his "night vision" (Acts 18:9-10; 25-26)
"And I baptized also the household of Stephanas: besides, I know not whether I baptized any other. 17For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the gospel: not with wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of none effect?"
Since "Christ sent him not to baptize" (I Corinthians 1:17) and we are to "Be followers of him, as he follows Christ" (I Corinthians 11:1) why do today's Christians not obey the commandments of GOD spoken through Paul (Galatians 1:12)?
Since II Cor 5:16 say "Christ is Spirit" & I Cor 12:13 say "We've been baptized into One Spirit" shouldn't Romans 6:3-4 read like this?
"Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ [aka Spirit] were baptized into his death? Therefore we are buried with HIM [aka Spirit] by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father [aka Holy Spirit], even so we also should walk in newness of life?"4 AnswersReligion & Spirituality1 month ago
Why do catholic and orthodox say they were the first church yet neither of them can demonstrate they have been filled with the Holy Ghost?
With Jesus' promises of "POWER" (Acts 1:8) "SPIRITUAL GIFTS" (I Corinthians 12:7-10) and "SIGNS FOLLOWING" (Mark 16:17-18) received after Holy Spirit baptism (Acts 1:5; I Corinthians 12:13; Mark 16:16) like the first Church did on the Day of Pentecost (Acts 2:2-4)?
If they were the first Church and their "history" says so, why don't they have the same "Spiritual gifts" at least "tongues" (Acts 2:4) the original Church received on the Day of Pentecost (Acts 2:2-4)?
Why do Orthodox believe "tongues" served it's purpose when it's one "speaking to God" (I Corinthians 14:2)? You mean speaking to God has "served it's purpose?"
Doesn't Ecclesiastes 3:14-15 says "God requires the pass?"
After all Jesus promised them "Greater works than these shall ye do" (John 14:12).
Why aren't they doing those "Greater works?"
Was the Lord's Supper or the equivalent of any setting up tables fulfilled on the Day of Pentecost fulfilling Jesus' promise in Lk 22:16;18?
JESUS PROMISED IN LUKE 22:16
"For I say unto you, I will not any more eat thereof, until it be fulfilled in the Kingdom of God."
AND IN LUKE 22:18
"For I say unto you, I will not drink of the fruit of the vine, until the Kingdom of God shall come."
MATTHEW 16:28 SAYS
"Verily I say unto you, There be some standing here, which shall not taste of death, till they see the Son of man coming in his Kingdom."
WHO CAME ON THE DAY OF PENTECOST (ACTS 2:2-4)
WHEN JESUS' PROMISES OF LUKE 22:16; 18 WERE FULFILLED!
SO WHY ARE TODAY'S CHRISTIANS STILL "DOING THIS IN REMEMBRANCE OF ME" AS THEY (((MISINTERPRET))) I CORINTHIANS 11:24 WHICH WAS ONLY PAUL'S (((REVELATION))) OF WHAT HE "HAD RECEIVED OF THE LORD" (I CORINTHIANS 11:23) AND (((NOT))) A COMMANDMENT TO CONTINUE TO EAT THE LORD'S SUPPER?
DON'T TODAY'S CHRISTIANS HEAR PAUL SAYING "DO NOT EAT THE LORD'S SUPPER" (I CORINTHIANS 11:20)?
DON'T THEY HEAR HIM SAYING "TARRY ONE FOR ANOTHER" (I CORINTHIANS 11:33)?
WHY DO TODAY'S CHRISTIANS STILL HAVE A HOLY EUCHARIST OR EQUIVALENT WHEN JESUS WHO IS SPIRITUAL (JOHN 14:18; 26; II CORINTHIANS 5:16; 12:11-12) SAID
"I AM THE BREAD OF LIFE" (JOHN 6:35)?
"CHRIST [WHO IS SPIRITUAL] IS OUR PASSOVER" (I CORINTHIANS 5:7).
WHAT DOES (((TABLES))) HAVE TO DO WITH "I AM THE BREAD OF LIFE" WHO IS SPIRITUAL?
What does Paul mean "Do not eat the Lord's Supper" (I Cor 11:20) but "Tarry one for another" (I Cor 11:33)? What does tarrying have to do?
WITH THE LORD'S SUPPER?6 AnswersReligion & Spirituality1 month ago