Anonymous asked in Society & CultureReligion & Spirituality · 10 years ago

1 Cor:7:29. What do you think this vs means?

( I think I have it memorized correctly)KJV.

For the time is short brethren, they that have wife's will be as if they had none.

Meaning all your bull crap love is meaningless, your mother, father, children, husband and wife. IT WILL BE AS IF YOU HAD NONE. So for you to keep your eyes on Jesus, for this world will be gone and destroyed and all that you love will be no more. For it will be as if you had none. If no one had a wife, no one will be a mother or father, so by saying this vs. When you reach heavens gates all that you love will be no more.

If I am correct about this vs, why do pastors and my fellow christians say they can not wait to get to heaven to see a loved one, or their mom again, or dad that has passed away already, and preach it in the church?

I can not find one scripture that says you will see your loved ones again, but all I find it is a new place, a new beginning all changed in the glory of God.

if you can show me one vs plus the meaning of this vs that says you will see your mom or dad again if she is a christian, or your children. That would be great. But again, all God shows me is he destroys all love of this world, and all will be brothers and sisters in Christ.

Thanks in Adv.

6 Answers

  • 10 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    The emphasis on this text should be on the part that you actually left out, "Moreover, this I say, brothers, the time left is reduced. Henceforth let those who had wives be as though they had none."

    When the apostle Paul spoke those inspired words he was talking about how the time in this world, or system of things is reduced, in other words as said in 2 timothy 3:1, we are living in the last days. Given that the time left is reduced, married Christians shouldn't be taking advantage of the privileges and duties of being married so much that only those things occupy their whole life. Rather, they should maintain their interests in spiritual matters, specifically God's kingdom, as 1st place/priority in their lives, and still fulfilling marital responsibilities (Matthew 6:9, 10, 33, 1 Corinthians 7:3-5, 29-40, Ephesians 5:33)

    You may not believe me, but the explanation above of the text doesn't agree with the context of chapter 7, nor with the Bible in its entirety.

    There ARE scriptures that touch what you said about being reunited with dead loved ones but it's worded slightly different...

    Unfortunately, when our loved ones die, as the Bible explains, they are conscious of nothing at all, their very thoughts die. (Ecclesiastes 9:5, 10, Psalm 146:4) But Jesus when in the earth, and other Bible writers, likened death to sleeping (John 11:11, 13; 1 thessalonians 4:13) Why? Because for God the Almighty, and his son Jesus, death is temporary. They are able to undo, the results of sin and sickness (1 john 3:8). Jesus did not lie when he said, he that exercises faith in me, although he may die, will live again (John 11:25,26). So the answer to your question is YES, we do have the hope of seeing our dead loved ones again. It's called the resurrection hope, which for the majority of people will take place in here on earth in fulfillment with God's original purpose for the earth and the prophetic psalm that the 'meek ones will inherit the earth' (Genesis 1:28, Psalm 37:9-11, 29, Matthew 6:9, 10).

    Read for yourselves, it's quite frank and clear in Acts 24:15 "...there is going to be a resurrection of the righteous and unrighteous." and read john 5:28, 29 too.

    i hope this helps you, you seem like a very passionate and sincere person :)

  • Anonymous
    10 years ago

    The scripture basically is in agreement with marthew 6:3 admonishing us to seek Gods kingdom first. However as you read on the scripture does give permission to marry. But basically is urging those that feel they can wait to focus on the kingdom and if they feel they cnt to get married. And as long as they are married to make sure they put God first.

    At John5:28,29 the bible speaks of a ressurection at Rev 21:3,4 it says death will be no more. At psalms 37:10,11 it speaks of meek ones living forever upon the earth. There will be a ressurection in which one can live forever on the earth.

    Source(s): Bible
  • Anonymous
    4 years ago

    #a million replaced into humorous, even regardless of the undeniable fact that it did not truly shop on with the subject rely. i theory #10 confirmed extra lyricism and that i enjoyed "incomplete like a play without narration". there have been some truly solid similes in that one. #10 gets my vote.

  • 10 years ago

    I'm interested to talk about Jesus (peace be upon him), Trinity, Original Sin, Crucifixion and resurrection and about the Bible.

    If you like to discuss feel free to email.

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  • Anonymous
    10 years ago

    @ nazmul: I am also interested in talking about the moon god allah, the failed prophet hood of mohammad. So here goes.

    @ nazmul: Why don't you read your own books on islam (quran, hadith)?


    #1 Mohammad says in the quran 39:12

    YUSUFALI: "And I am commanded to be the first of those who bow to Allah in Islam."

    * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * *

    #2 MOHAMMAD FAILED THE TEST OF PROPHET HOOD, if muhammad's allah was true, it would have informed him about the poisoned goat, which later led to his death.

    * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * *

    Ibn Sa'd page 249: Verily a Jewish woman presented poisoned (meat of) a she goat to the apostle of Allah. He took a piece form it, put it into his mouth, chewed it and threw it away. Then he said to the Companions: "Halt! Verily, its leg tells me that it is poisoned." Then he sent for the Jewish woman and asked her; "What induced you to do what you have done?" She replied, "I wanted to know if you are true; in that case Allah will surely inform you, and if you are a liar I shall relieve the people of you."

    **PROPHET HOOD FAILED**: The question here is weather allah told muhammad that the goat is poisoned or not? CLEARLY NOT, as he had to put it in his mouth. Quran says "if you are true; in that case Allah will surely inform you" {muhammad would not eat the goat and he would not die} but because allah NEVER informed him, and muhammad was a liar he ate it and he died, just as the verse says "if you are a liar I shall relieve the people of you."

    After all this even if Muhammad knew that it was poisoned, and he still put it (goat) in his mouth, he committed suicide.

    And if he came to know after chewing it, its nothing special as anybody would know after they chewed it, no need for special powers.

    #3 Mohammedans do not have any supporting evidence to prove mohammad was a prophet (other than he being a self proclaimed prophet, with hallucinations). He has not been mentioned in either of the earlier original texts (Torah/Bible).

    #4 Even if we agree that muhammad was illiterate, certain questions come up like, who wrote the quran?, if not muhammad then how did he verify what he was narrating to his biographers or his contemporaries, weather it was exactly what he wanted them to write?

    #5 Muhammad forced the Arab moon god allah on everyone. I say this because, mohammad's father, A PAGAN, had the name Abdullah meaning servant of allah much before mohammad had his "revelations"

    #6 Muhammad was called a liar

    Muhammad informed Umar [the second Caliph], and he called the Prophet a liar. Ishaq:567.

    #7 Muhammad broke oaths as he wished and advised mohammedans to do the same

    If you ever take an oath to do something and later on you find that something else is better, then you should expiate your oath and do what is better." Sahih Bukhari 9:89:260

    * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * *

    #8 Mohammad being a false prophet did not perform any miracle.

    * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * * *

    The Qur'an very clearly says of Muhammad that he performed no signs. In Surah 6.37, when Muhammad's adversaries say "Why has no sign been sent down to him from his Lord?", Muhammad is bidden to reply merely that God could send one if he wanted to but had not done so.

    In the same Surah we read that Muhammad said, "I have not that for which you are impatient" (Surah 6.57), meaning signs and wonders such as Moses had. He goes on to say that if he had had them, the dispute between him and them would have been decided long ago.

    # 9 Muslims PRAY to Mohammad like he said to do:

    Tirmidhi relates, through his chain of narrators from 'Uthman ibn Hunayf, that a blind man came to the Prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace) and said, "I've been afflicted in my eyesight, so please pray to Allah for me." The Prophet (Allah bless him and grant him peace) said: "Go make ablution (wudu), perform two rak'as of prayer, and then say:

    "Oh Allah, I ask You and turn to You through my Prophet Muhammad, the Prophet of mercy; O MUHAMMAD (YA MUHAMMAD), I SEEK YOUR INTERCESSION with my Lord for the return of my eyesight [and in another version: "for my need, that it may be fulfilled. O Allah, grant him intercession for me"]."

    Do the readers see how Muhammad specifically instructed the blind man to address him directly in his prayer? The blind man wasn’t told to simply pray to Allah asking him to heal him on behalf of Muhammad. He was also directed to address Muhammad directly and personally ask him in the prayer to intercede for him.

  • ShyOwl
    Lv 6
    10 years ago

    Type it into web search above, it will come up there, on google. many answers..

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