was the appeasement fair for germany?
- Anonymous8 years agoFavorite Answer
Alica, CMV answered your question. Appeasement was an attempt by the west to avoid war and gain time to rearm to be able to go to war. However, I feel the compulsive need to rip apart the answer from Richard Ross as he has typed a bunch of BS to your question:
"In short NO. At the end of WWI the British had already worked out that the next war with Germany would be the issue of German land given to the Polish. The issue of Danzig created its own problems. This is why the French gave Poland a war guarantee around the issue of Danzig."
The British didn't do anything of the sort. In fact the British military had ten year plans and kept pushing back the date of when they would need to be rearmed by since they did not believe there would be a war. Furthermore, Danzig was not given to Poland. Danzig was a independent Free City under the oversight of the League of Nations. Not to mention during the 1920s and early 1930s the British were actively working with the Germans to improve relations. Europe and Germany had reconciled by 1925.
"The Treaty of Versailles was there to bankrupt Germany as they had to pay the war reparations in gold bullion and not in paper and goods."
Complete rubbish. Reparations were based off material goods and cash money, not gold bullion. The reparations were a farce designed to look imposing but were not. The Allies knew Germany could not pay much and therefore only forced them to pay what everyone knew they could. In the end Germany didn't even pay that. Bankrupting Germany was bad for business, it would destroy the European economy and the British and Americans knew this. Which is why they bankrolled the German economy and raised loans to support it.
"This sent Germany into debt"
Poor economic management by the Weimar Republic and the Great Depression did that, not reparations.
"they no longer issued money as it was worthless paper"
"hence the economic boom in Germany when he took over."
"German re-armament began about 4 years before the outbreak of war"
Wrong. The Germans were rearming in the 1920s, they never dissolved their general staff and were buying out arms companies all around Europe and testing weapons in Sweden and the Soviet Union. Plans were already in place to expand the army prior to Hitler taking power. Hitler just made it public what had already been going on.
"but it was still small compared to France and Britain."
Considering the Anglo-French alliance was just about on par with Germany during the Battle of France and Germany had only 100,000 men in the army in 1933, this is a amazing statement.
"They had no long range bombers so the whole idea of taking over the world is more post WWII propaganda."
Hitler's goals were quite clear, they never had global domination in mind. Not that is relevant to the question, nor does it explain away the few 4 engine heavy bombers that were built or the likes of the Condor naval patrol bombers.
"The Anschluss or joining of Austria with Germany was by consent as the Austrians voted on it in a referendum and more than 97% wanted to be part of Germany. This then occurred."
Wrong. While some Austrians clearly wanted to merge with Germany, the vote took place after the Nazis had illegally seized power via a coup and German troops had crossed the border.
"Talk about the Czechs! The Sudetenland land issue was resolved as it had been German. The Czechs never owned the Sudetenland."
The area had been part of the Austrian-Hungarian Empire and never been German, so the Czechs had been in charge far longer and more legally than the German annexation.
"The "Polish corridor" is interesting as stated the British knew it would come. Poland had a war guarantee from France so they could afford to throw their weight around. Hitler wanted a rail line to connect Danzig to Germany and the Polish would not allow this. Germany then made the Molotov–Ribbentrop Pactt with Russia to split Poland in two then."
Considering the territory had been legally transferred to Poland, Poland had very right to not want the Germans to build on their territory. That doesn't create casus belli. Poland was guaranteed by France and the United Kingdom after Germany had annexed Austria and the whole of Czechoslovakia breeching two international agreements. The guarantee to Poland was against German attack, no one else. The German-Soviet pact was a move to stop French and British from allying with the Soviets since they had been trying so hard to do.
Considering you told Alicia to look through all the propaganda, it is quite laughable how you have bought the Nazi propaganda toe line and sinker!
- CMVLv 68 years ago
Appeasement is a later term used to collate the actions of Britain and France when confronted with brusque and aggressive moves by the Nazi state from 1933 to september 1939 .
Britain and France had both suffered terrific damage to manpower , to their economies and to national morale during the carnages of WW1 and the last thing either wanted was another war .
Nor did many in their populations .
By 1933 even the French realised that the post WW1 treaty of Versailles , the extraction of War reparations , the military occupation of areas of Germany , the cession of geographical areas with high or even majority populations of ethnic Germans to other states , and the oppressions against those peoples by their new masters , had all gone far too far .
So when Hitler and the Nazis began to rebuild a sullen and economically depressed Germany many people in Britain and France admired him , and were prepared to give him a lot of leeway .
First with the German military returning to the Saar and the Rhineland .
German military strength was weak , so we let that go .
Then with German re-armament , the build up of their navy ( which had actually begun in the 1920s ) and the establishment of the Luftwaffe .
Again the British and French military chiefs told their governments that they still had great superiority , so again , nothing was done .
Then the Anschluss ( unification ) with the small Post WW1 Austrian state , again , that was not seen as a great threat , so again , nothing was done .
Then the dispute over the treatment of ethnic Germans in the Czechoslovakian Sudetenland , which caused the Munich crisis .
Again , a war was avoided , because by that time the British and French military staff were saying that both Britain and France needed to re-arm before thinking about taking on the Germans .
So the Czechs lost the Sudetenland , which had all their fixed border fortifications against Germany .
A few months later the Germans moved into Bohemia ( the remaing Czech bit ) and created a puppet state in Slovakia , and in doing so got the Skoda armaments factory at Pilsen , and a load of good Czech army equipment , including modern artillery and some 700 T38 tanks , enough for two new panzer divisions , which made a lot of difference to the forthcoming 1940 battle for France .
Then Adi turned his attention to Poland , and a grievance about the " Polish corridor " and the " Free city " of Danzig ( modern Gdansk ) .
The Corridor was a strip of Polish territory which ran north to the Baltic sea , dividing Germany from German East Prussia , and Danzig was a German city , but denationalised under the post WW1 treaties .
So the German attack on the Poles in September 1939 started , and the ultimatum to stop it issued by Britain and France , which led to the start of WW2 .
Was it " fair " to Germany ?
Fairness didnt come into it , each bit of the appeasement was Real-Politik at the time it happened , as was the declaration of war once it was realised that if Poland fell , Germany would become the dominant power on the European Continent .
It is very easy to be wise after events have happened .
- 8 years ago
Do you want a real answer or do you wish to have the usual tripe?
In short NO. At the end of WWI the British had already worked out that the next war with Germany would be the issue of German land given to the Polish. The issue of Danzig created its own problems. This is why the French gave Poland a war guarantee around the issue of Danzig.
The Treaty of Versailles was there to bankrupt Germany as they had to pay the war reparations in gold bullion and not in paper and goods. This was at a time when the world was still running the gold standard. This sent Germany into debt so when Hitler came to power they no longer issued money as it was worthless paper. He issued government bonds based on labour provided hence the economic boom in Germany when he took over.
German re-armament began about 4 years before the outbreak of war but it was still small compared to France and Britain. They had no long range bombers so the whole idea of taking over the world is more post WWII propaganda. You can check the bomber makes and models on Wikipedia to see it was all short range airplanes.
The Anschluss or joining of Austria with Germany was by consent as the Austrians voted on it in a referendum and more than 97% wanted to be part of Germany. This then occurred.
Talk about the Czechs! The Sudetenland land issue was resolved as it had been German. The Czechs never owned the Sudetenland. The area came into ruin after WWI when Hungary, Germany and Poland had been carved up by the powers that won. This created more issues. Hitler told the British if they could not annex the Sudetenland then at least allow the Germans in the Sudetenland to be moved to Germany. This was done and THIS is what the famous -- 'We have peace in our time' from Chamberlain was all about. (There is a good documentary which came out in the Czech Republic last month on public television which they played which showed video footage as to how the Ethnic Germans where being killed and why Hitler wanted them out of the Sudetenland)
The "Polish corridor" is interesting as stated the British knew it would come. Poland had a war guarantee from France so they could afford to throw their weight around. Hitler wanted a rail line to connect Danzig to Germany and the Polish would not allow this. Germany then made the Molotov–Ribbentrop Pactt with Russia to split Poland in two then.
[Why would Britain and France declare war on Germany for invading Poland yet not declare war on Russia who was also party to the invasion?]
Fair? YOU decide after you page through all the propaganda.
- WallyLv 58 years ago
NO. Had the Western Allies stood firm, Germany wouldn't have initiated the war and been destroyed as a result.