Christians - Can you answer these questions about the Bible?

1. Why did Jesus change Simon's name to Rock?

2. Why is Peter mentioned more than any other Apostle and why is his name almost always listed first?

3. Why does Jesus say that whatever the Church He founded binds and looses on earth will be bound and loosened in heaven?

4. Why does the Bible never say that Scripture is the sole infallible authority for God's Word?

5. Since the Bible was not available to most people before the invention of the printing press, 1400 years after the time of Jesus, how was the Word of God communicated?

6. Is the mention of the Seven Spirits who are before the Throne of the Lord in Revelation 1:4 a reference to the apocryphal book of Tobit that mentions the seven angels who stand in the presence of the Lord?

7. Why do the writers of the New Testament quote the Greek Septuagint translation of the Old Testament which included the apocryphal books?

8. Why does Jesus say nobody can enter the Kingdom of Heaven unless he is born of water and the Spirit? (John 3:3-5)

9. Why did Jesus give the Apostles the power to forgive and retain sins? (John 20:22)

10. Why does Jesus make sure to explain he is speaking of metaphorical bread in Matthew 16:12, but not in John 6?

11. Why did the people of Samaria need to have the Apostles lay their hands on them to receive the Holy Spirit, even though they had already been baptized in Christ? (Acts 8:14-17)

12. Is it wrong to refer to any man on earth as teacher, since Jesus forbids it in Matthew 23:8?

11 Answers

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  • 6 years ago
    Favorite Answer

    1. Why did Jesus change Simon's name to Rock?

    He felt like it.

    2a. Why is Peter mentioned more than any other Apostle

    I ask: "Where, when, and by whom?" Without knowing those things, there is no way to answer that question.

    2b) and why is his name almost always listed first?

    It is not - at least, in the Bible it is not. [Edit: correction: I read the question too quickly, Peter is, indeed, *almost* always mentioned first in the Bible. The Bible does not teach us why this is so.]

    https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=john%...

    3. Why does Jesus say that whatever the Church He founded binds and looses on earth will be bound and loosened in heaven?

    If Jesus did indeed say that, we have no record of that.

    4. Why does the Bible never say that Scripture is the sole infallible authority for God's Word?

    Because such a teaching is so vague as to allow for literally any doctrine. One need merely identify as "Scripture" any writing that supports a desired doctrine, and thus the desired doctrine is justified by Scripture.

    5. Since the Bible was not available to most people before the invention of the printing press, 1400 years after the time of Jesus, how was the Word of God communicated?

    Probably for most of the "lifetime" of the Bible before the invention of the printing press, by *reading the word of God*. Bibles were expensive before the printing press - but not beyond the financial means of most churches. Most churches - in the centuries immediately preceding the invention of the printing press - owned at least one Bible and read from it or at least quoted from it to the congregation during religious services.

    6. Is the mention of the Seven Spirits who are before the Throne of the Lord in Revelation 1:4 a reference to the apocryphal book of Tobit that mentions the seven angels who stand in the presence of the Lord?

    Impossible to answer with certainty. It might be; it might not be. I am more inclined to believe that it is a reference to the 7 angels of those 7 churches mentioned in that same sentence and in that very same chapter. That is: 7 churches mentioned in the same sentence, 7 angels of those 7 churches mentioned in v 20. Of course, even though that is a reasonable interpretation (as is the one you favor), it also is not a *certain* interpretation.

    7. Why do the writers of the New Testament quote the Greek Septuagint translation of the Old Testament which included the apocryphal books?

    The question assumes something that is not necessarily true. Just because *some* *later* copies of the Septuagint included so-called Apocryphal books does not allow us to conclude that *all* copies of the Septuagint did so. It should also be pointed out that many of the quotes in the New Testament are from Hebrew or Aramaic sources rather than from the Septuagint (though admittedly the majority are taken from the Septuagint).

    Further: the fact that the New Testament authors quoted the Septuagint is not a sound basis for identifying the books typically associated with the Septuagint as "Scripture". The Septuagint, for example, typically includes 1 & 2 Esdras and The Prayer of Manasseh, which nearly all Christians do not consider inspired Scripture. If the mere fact that New Testament authors quoted the Septuagint indicates that the books of the Septuagint are inspired, then logically those rejected books that are part of the Septuagint are likewise inspired and should be included in our Bibles.

    Then there is the fact that Jude quotes from The Book of 1 Enoch, so (by your reasoning) that should also be considered "inspired" and included in our Bibles...It's simply not a sound argument.

    8. Why does Jesus say nobody can enter the Kingdom of Heaven unless he is born of water and the Spirit? (John 3:3-5)

    The passage is often misunderstood. Clearly, Jesus is speaking of two different sorts of births

    - natural birth, and

    - spiritual birth (or spiritual rebirth, if you prefer)

    The two speakers repeatedly compare and contrast both types of birth - and clearly the phrase "born by water" refers to the natural (physical) birth that is plainly mentioned and compared and contrasted in that same passage.

    9. Why did Jesus give the Apostles the power to forgive and retain sins? (John 20:22)

    He felt like it.

    10. Why does Jesus make sure to explain he is speaking of metaphorical bread in Matthew 16:12, but not in John 6?

    Not accurate. Please read the paragraph in Mat 16 again. Jesus spoke of leaven - not of bread. The apostles concluded that he was referring to bread, and Jesus corrected them, making it clear that it was *not* bread that he was referring to metaphorically by using the word "leaven".

    11. Why did the people of Samaria need to have the Apostles lay their hands on them to receive the Holy Spirit, even though they had already been baptized in Christ? (Acts 8:14-17)

    That passage does not describe such a need. It only records that the apostles *did* lay their hands on those people, and that when the apostles did so the people *did* receive the Holy Spirit, without indicating any need.

    12. Is it wrong to refer to any man on earth as teacher, since Jesus forbids it in Matthew 23:8?

    No. Many misinterpret that verse

    a - forgetting the simple fact that it is a translation from another language - that is, Jesus didn't use the word "father" any more than he used the word "dad" or "pops" or "old man" or "male progenitor", all of which are (to some degree) accurate English translations of the Greek word that Jesus did use. Are we to use none of those terms? Obviously that was not Jesus' point...

    b - And I say "obviously", but not to those who do not carefully read the entire passage, the point of which is not "do not use the word 'father' " but - rather - "Do not do as the Pharisees do" (v3) "including, do not love receiving respectful greetings and titles in public" (v8)

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  • 6 years ago

    Peter is Simon's changed name! Used more because he was in charge of this New Christian religion!

    The words of God were in the Catholic church services. When the printing press was invented, people saw that they had Not been told what the Bible really dose state! That is why the offer/beginning, for more obedient religions came to be!.

    Being born of water and spirit means to Get to Heaven one has to be believing in God, that God sent Jesus, and Not to have evil spirits or any hate in us. This is prophesied.

    Jesus gave the Disciples the privilege to heal people. Not to forgive sins! The Bible tells us that Only God Can Forgive Sins! Plus if one asks for forgiveness of sins and dose not mean it, if God knows they will go and do it again; then that sin and ones following it will NOT be forgiven!

    Baptism dose not keep evil away for ever. Some religions have become so far from God's teachings and Commands, that may not even count . We have to really mean it our selves!

    Matthew 23:8 requires us to Not have title saying one is a teacher. Like people using Rev., Pastor, Rabbi, are disobeying this! The next line states that No one on earth is to be called "father"; that Father is a title Only For God! Look at how many are disobeying these two lines. Too many are too full of the devil's pride, other then obeying the Bible!

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  • Anonymous
    6 years ago

    1. Peter knew that Christ was the only begotten son of God because God himself revealed it to Peter.

    2. In the four Gospel books because he was favored by Christ even Matthew, John Mark, Luke, and John knew that to be the fact. Matthew and John becaused they had witnessed it, John Mark and Luke because of eyewitnesses, but Paul did a fine job of opposing Peter over legalism.

    3. 2 Corhinthians 10:5 might help you figure it out.

    4. Check the last sentence of John 15:20 "If they obey my teaching they will obey yours also" Then check out Hebrews 8:6-13 The New Testament is superior to the Old Testament. and there are a ton of other such passages that affirm God's Word as " infallible authority".

    5. Through the sharing of bread and wine so that what Christ did in his death and resurrection would be rememebered in the those times.

    6. I don't care for the Catholic Bible or Gnostic writings so I wouldn't care to even answer that question.

    7. I would suppose so that Gentiles would plainly understand where they were coming from in the teachings.

    8. Without Baptism no one can receive the spirit or the gifts of the spirit so it only stands to reason that we must be Baptised.

    9. Because it was meant for them and appointed to them, just as knowledge is appoint to us today. SEE: 1 Corinthians 12:7-9

    10. Two different writers who looked at what Christ said through two different sets of eyes and wrote it down in their own ways.

    11. Because the passage even says the spirit had not yet begun to work with them ( God sends the spirit through Christ into the lives of those Baptised on his own time )

    12. Because there is only one master - Jesus Christ himself.

    Source(s): Me - http://www.wmperrin.com
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  • 6 years ago

    1.Why did Jesus change Simon's name to Rock?

    Jesus did not change Simon’s name to Rock, Jesus changed Simon’s name to a Stone.

    And when Jesus beheld him, he said, Thou art Simon the son of Jona: thou shalt be called Cephas, which is by interpretation, A stone.

    John 1:42 (KJV)

    2. Why is Peter mentioned more than any other Apostle and why is his name almost always listed first?

    Jesus kept Peter close, because it was Peter who was to betray Jesus. Jesus never spoke badly about Judas, but was always rebuking Peter. Matthew 16:23, Matthew 19:27, Matthew 26:33-35, Matthew 26:38-43, Matthew 26:69-75, (Judas, John 13:31-32, Matthew 27:3-5), Mark 8:33, Luke 22:31-32, John 21:3, John 21:7, John 21:15-17, John 21:20-22,

    Understand the words,

    "Whom do men say that I the Son of man am?"

    And they said, Some say that thou art John the Baptist: some, Elias; and others, Jeremias, or one of the prophets.

    He saith unto them, "But whom say ye that I am?"

    And Simon Peter answered and said,

    "Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God."

    HOW DID PETER KNOW?

    Matt 16:13-16 (KJV)

    3. Why does Jesus say that whatever the Church He founded binds and looses on earth will be bound and loosened in heaven?

    What ever evil or good we do on earth is also done in heaven, Our spirits are in heaven, our souls are here on earth, a soul is made by joining a spirit, a child of God with the flesh, a son of man, the spirit returns to heaven but the soul remains here on earth until it is harvested.

    4. Why does the Bible never say that Scripture is the sole infallible authority for God's Word?

    Because it is the Holy Ghost who is the sole bearer of the word of God on earth, and the Holy Ghost gave Jesus the word of God in John 5:37 The Gospel of the kingdom, the words spoken by Jesus is the only infallible words of God in the Bible. (John 12:49-50 and John 17:8)

    5. Since the Bible was not available to most people before the invention of the printing press, 1400 years after the time of Jesus, how was the Word of God communicated?

    Orally, and it was written on the hearts of men. (John 1: 9, and Matt 12:47-50)

    6. Is the mention of the Seven Spirits who are before the Throne of the Lord in Revelation 1:4 a reference to the apocryphal book of Tobit that mentions the seven angels who stand in the presence of the Lord?

    I do not believe nor follow the Book of Tobit, however the 7 spirits that are mentioned in Revelation 1:4 are also mentioned in

    Mark 8:17-21, Jesus is telling the 12 apostles that 5 of them will fall before they establish a church, this was why there were only 7 churches and not 12.

    7. Why do the writers of the New Testament quote the Greek Septuagint translation of the Old Testament which included the apocryphal books?

    Because even though they confessed in believing in Jesus they still did not, they all still believed in Moses and the Prophets and their own self-righteousness. Compare Matthew 24:40-42 and Luke 17:34-37, they are the same passages, but Matthew omitted all references to men, and added at the mill, because his own self-righteousness would not allow him to accept these teaching of Jesus as Truth.

    8. Why does Jesus say nobody can enter the Kingdom of Heaven unless he is born of water and the Spirit? (John 3:3-5)

    No one has ever ascended to heaven, that is no soul has ever ascended to heaven. A Soul is explained in Matthew 19:4-6, Mark 10:6-9 and Matthew 11:29, if you have understanding follow the path described in John 1:3 to him who made.

    9. Why did Jesus give the Apostles the power to forgive and retain sins? (John 20:22)

    Jesus did not give the apostles the power to forgive sins. Jesus said, whatsoever sin you remit (send) will be remitted (sent back) them and whatever sin you retain (keep) will be retained (kept)

    The only one who can forgive sins is the person who committed the sin, and that person can only get forgiven if they forgive the sins of everyone who has ever sinned against them, if they do not forgive they will be judge with the same words they used to judge others. (Matthew 6:14-15, Matthew 18:21-35, and Luke 23:34)

    10. Why does Jesus make sure to explain he is speaking of metaphorical bread in Matthew 16:12, but not in John 6?

    Jesus is speaking the truth in both Matthew 16:12, Mark 8:21 and in John 6, these are not metaphorical statements they literal statements, they are parables, they are words that are meant to elude those with secular minds and to make visible the true meaning of those words to those with a spiritual understanding. You may see a difference in the word bread, but I see bread as light, as truth, as a path to the 7 churches as fragments, the words that are to be fed to our spirits as Moses fed them manna.

    11. Why did the people of Samaria need to have the Apostles lay their hands on them to receive the Holy Spirit, even though they had already been baptized in Christ? (Acts 8:14-17)

    I do not believe in nor follow Peter or Paul.

    12. Is it wrong to refer to any man on earth as teacher, since Jesus forbids it in Matthew 23:8?

    Yes, we have but one teacher and he is the Holy Ghost, but some of also have another teacher who is the Spirit of Truth.

    John 14:15-19 and John 14:25-26.

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  • 6 years ago

    1 . He DIDN'T

    2 it Isn't and Peter was a talker and prideful, and always wanted to be first ( had you READ the Bible you would see why he also denied Christ even after being warmed and when Jesus Arose and spoke HE said go and tell my Disciples AND Peter ( so was Peter a disciple at the time ? ) Sin separates one from god...try learning that....after Peter repented he was than called a disciple again...now do you get it ?

    3 Has nothing to do with any man made church or group or sect..try learning that as well

    4 It does had you READ it you would have read what it said and WHO the BOOK ( bible ) really IS .

    5 by Chosen vessels who were Filled with the Holy Ghost ( the Spirit of God ) the LIVING WORD, and they did write things down and pass it from one to another how do you think the writings came about from the beginning ? For even God Himself WROTE it in a BOOK and that SAME Book was passed from generation to generation and also the Bible tells you that as well IF you would READ IT

    6 First the seven spirits COME OUT of GOD and the book of REV. says so. again TRY reading it.

    7 READ THE BOOK

    8 Because the Pure water IS THE WORD ( again Try reading it ) hint God said it back in the OT He would sprinkle His people with PURE WATER and in the NT it says From YOUR bellies shall flow rivers of LIVING WATER...so when Jesus who is the LIVING WORD was pierced what came out of Him ? Both water and Blood...so do you think your sinful priest throwing water on you is baptism ? READ AGAIN !!!

    9 Do you forgive people that sin against you ? But did You die for their sins or did Christ ? Whose Blood washes away sins ? Yours of Christs ? once again READ THE BOOK.

    10 READ THE BOOK

    11 READ THE BOOK...it is explained simply ( but not by your man made ideology of Catholicism )

    12 LEARN to READ the BOOK

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  • 6 years ago

    The Big Questions...

    http://www.jw.org/en/publications/books/jworg-trac...

    Use the search window

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  • 6 years ago

    #4 Because it is understood from 2 Tim 3:16 that if any imperfect human contradicted the inspired word of God or teaching of Christ they would be part of the ANTICHRIST

    #5 It was copied by hand by believers which is why we have over 5000 manuscripts and fragments of the Christian bible.

    #6 There is clear evidence that the apocryphal books were not originally recognized as part of the inspired Scriptures.

    The Jerusalem canon, which predates the Greek canon was fixed by the end of the fifth century B.C.E by the Great Synagogue of Jerusalem.

    >> The Greek Septuagint Version was originally produced without the Apocrypha <<

    Niether Josephus* nor Philo, recognized any of the books of the Apocrypha as inspired. Their Hebrew Scriptures consisted solely of twenty-four books, which are the same as the thirty-nine books of the generally accepted Hebrew Scripture canon.

    Josephus wrote: “There are not with us myriads of books, discordant and discrepant, but only two and twenty [the equivalent of the thirty-nine books of the Hebrew Scriptures according to modern division], comprising the history of all time, which are justly accredited. ... “From the time of Artaxerxes up to our own everything has been recorded, but the records have not been accounted equally worthy of credit with those written before them, because the exact succession of prophets ceased.”—Against Apion, Book I, par. 8 (according to the translation in The Interpreter’s Dictionary of the Bible, Vol. 1, p. 163).

    JESUS AND THE BIBLE WRITERS DELIBERATELY AVOIDED THE APOCRYPHAL BOOKS!

    Furthermore, Jesus Christ quoted or refered to over half of the books of the hebrew scriptures without once making a single referrence to the so called apocryphal books and not one of the Christian Bible writers ever quoted from the Apocrypha, although they doubtless used the Septuagint, which in their day contained the Apocrypha, thus indicating deliberate design.

    Jerome*, in his Prologus Galeatus to the Vulgate, lists the inspired books of the Hebrew Scriptures in harmony with the Hebrew canon (in which the thirty-nine books are grouped as twenty-two) and then says: “Thus there are twenty-two books . . . This prologue of the Scriptures can serve as a fortified approach to all the books which we translate from the Hebrew into Latin; so that we may know that whatever is beyond these must be put in the apocrypha”

    “All apocrypha books should be avoided; . . . they are not the works of authors by whose names they are distinguished, [for] they contain much that is faulty, and . . . ”—McClintock & Strong’s Cyclopædia, Vol. 1, p. 290. -- Jeromes correspondenc to Lœta .

    ==============================================

    #10 Because he explained he was speaking symbolically of SYMBOLIC bread with the words in JOHN 6 such as the following

    "The food that remains forever" LITERAL food doesn't last forever, it is ingested, breaks down into sugar and other substances and is incorporated into the body as minersals. IT DOES NOT REMAIN BREAD ONCE INGESTED. So its clear Jesus was NOT speaking of literal but of metaphorical or symbolic bread.

    JOHN 6 "Bread that comes down from heaven" Literal bread comes from wheat or other grains that is ground into flour and mixed with water. Jesus was obviously not speaking about literal bread but metaphorically refering to symbolic bread.

    (see Leviticus 17:14)

    https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=fLiPpH9FMdQ

    Youtube thumbnail

    &list=PLC644A125E8C3A90A&index=46

    #12 Yes, if that is used AS A RELIGIOUS TITLE; Jesus was quite explicit in this, he said that his disciples would be "brothers" (and sisters). It is MOST CERTAINLY wrong to refer to someone as your religious "Holy Father" (Jesus himself even refused the title of "good") - See Matthew 23:8

    LEARN MORE http://www.jw.org

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  • 6 years ago

    Yep, But to write it out would take more space than Yahoo will allow (and who wants to read a Long wall of text anyway)

    so let me provide links

    1.) What is the rock in Matthew 16:18?

    http://www.gotquestions.org/upon-this-rock.html

    2.) Is it? Never heard that before, It is Paul who is most Mentioned as he wrote 2/3 rd's of the New Testament

    3.) The concept of “binding and loosing” is taught in the Bible in Matthew 16:19: “I will give you the keys of the kingdom of heaven; whatever you bind on earth will be bound in heaven, and whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in heaven.” In this verse, Jesus is speaking directly to the apostle Peter and indirectly to the other apostles. Jesus' words meant that Peter would have the right to enter the kingdom himself, that he would have general authority symbolized by the possession of the keys, and that preaching the gospel would be the means of opening the kingdom of heaven to all believers and shutting it against unbelievers. The book of Acts shows us this process at work. By his sermon on the day of Pentecost (Acts 2:14-40), Peter opened the door of the kingdom for the first time. The expressions “bind” and “loose” were common to Jewish legal phraseology meaning to declare something forbidden or to declare it allowed.

    Peter and the other disciples were to continue Christ’s work on earth in preaching the gospel and declaring God's will to men, and they were armed with the same authority as He possessed. In Matthew 18:18, there is also a definite reference to the binding and loosing in the context of church discipline. The apostles do not usurp Christ's lordship and authority over individual believers and their eternal destiny, but they do exercise the authority to discipline and, if necessary, excommunicate disobedient church members.

    Christ in heaven ratifies what is done in His name and in obedience to His Word on earth. In both Matthew 16:19 and 18:18, the syntax of the Greek text makes the meaning clear. What you bind on earth will have already been bound in heaven. What you loose on earth will have already been loosed in heaven. In other words, Jesus in heaven looses the authority of His Word as it goes forth on earth for the fulfillment of its purpose.

    4.) The Bible claims to be infallible in 2 Peter 1:19, “We also have the prophetic message as something completely reliable.” Peter continues with a description of how Scripture came to be: “No prophecy of Scripture came about by the prophet’s own interpretation of things. For prophecy never had its origin in the human will, but prophets, though human, spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit” (2 Peter 1:20–21).

    Read more: http://www.gotquestions.org/Bible-infallible.html#...

    5.) How did people know about God before the Bible?

    http://www.gotquestions.org/know-God-before-Bible....

    6.) What are the seven spirits of God?

    http://www.gotquestions.org/seven-spirits-God.html

    Now, It takes a lot of time to answer each one of these, You have actually 12 questions here,

    It is suggested that you actually Post 12 individual questions rather than Bunch them up in one.

    Just saying

    But many of your questions can be answered at http://www.gotquestions.org

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  • 4
    Lv 4
    6 years ago

    People have a short attention span here - try posting questions in threes or fours. Good luck!

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  • Anonymous
    6 years ago

    As a typical Christian I am statistically only able to answer approximately 50% of any questions about my religion (I pick 1-6)?

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