How did Israel of old become justified by the deeds of the law?
We do know how justification works today but it would be helpful
to know what was required under the old and why Israel of
today cannot accept the new way offered to them.
- Life ForevermoreLv 56 years agoFavorite Answer
Ancient Israel had to stay in line with the entirety of the law to be justified.
Some of them were deemed righteous through their obedience.
Romans 10:05 " For Moses describes the righteousness which is of the law,
'That the man who does those things shall live by them'
These spiritual pillars had to have intimate knowledge of the Lord by the
input of the Holy Spirit.
Today the old wine (old covenant) is unfit for the new container (new spirit).
Today's Israel is used to the old system and prefers its ease of familiarity
to the new effervescence of the unfamiliar and fresh Good Message.
Israel won't make the transition from works to faith. They stumble at that
stumbling stone of Christ.
Romans 9:31 - 33
"But Israel, which followed after the law of righteousness has not attained to the
law of righteousness. Why? Because they sought it not by faith, but as it were
by the works of the law. For they stumbled at that stumbing stone.
As it is written, Behold, I lay in Sion a stumbling Stone and Rock of offence:
and whosoever believes on Him shall not be ashamed"
Some Israelis are not of the seed of Isaac (children of promise) but are
children of the flesh (outer Jews in lip service).
Other Israelis are blinded for a time to the Good Message in order for the
Gentiles to be granted invitation to the Kingdom of God.
Romans 11:25 " ... blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness
of the Gentiles be come in"
- ChildoftheKingLv 76 years ago
Israel could not be justified by the law because no one could
"for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified."
- Taylor B. 1333Lv 56 years ago
israel did not exist until 1948 and the bible is the biggest lie brought upon man other than the quran.