Anonymous
Anonymous asked in Society & CultureReligion & Spirituality · 8 months ago

Isaiah 53 is concerned about the Second Coming of Christ, which has nothing to do with Jesus of Nazareth in the 1st century AD. So what?

Isaiah 53:10 ¶ Yet it was the will of the Lord to crush him with pain. When you make his life an offering for sin, HE SHALL SEE HIS OFFSPRING, AND SHALL PROLONG HIS DAYS; through him the will of the Lord shall prosper.

The above Scripture is clear on this point.

That this is no reference to Jesus of Nazareth in the 1st century AD, because nowhere in the New Testament does it say that Jesus had any children.

But Isaiah 53:10 says that "God will prolong Jesus's life so that he would see his offspring".

Therefore, Isaiah is conclusive evidence that this account of Jesus is the Second Coming of Christ in the future, which has nothing to do with Jesus of Nazareth in the 1st century AD.

But what are you going to do about it?

3 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    8 months ago
    Favorite Answer

    But what are you going to do about it?

    I am going to wait for you, The Forum Village Idiot, to prove your god and jesus are real.  I just won't hold my breath, because I know you lack the integrity to do anything honest, factual or genuine.

  • Mack
    Lv 7
    8 months ago

    So do you think these rants are effective?

  • 8 months ago

    Yeah... if you read the bible looking for inconsistencies and contradictions, you will find them all day long.

    The people who believe in it, do so based on 'faith' - which could be roughly interpreted as 'don't ask hard questions'.

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