Blackjack: What are the odds of me starting with £200 and leaving with £10,000? That's a 1 in 50 chance right?

7 Answers

  • Erik
    Lv 7
    4 months ago

    It doesn't work that way, it's probably even less that that.

  • 4 months ago

    Odds don't work that way, and by the way, the odds are ALWAYS slanted towards the house making all the money.

    To REALLY compute the odds, you have to start with the realization that the odds of winning overall in blackjack are based on the odds of winning on one hand multiplied by however many hands you would play.  The odds ALWAYS favor the house, so to win one hand, you have to be on the low-probabily side of things.  To win for the evening, you have to be on the low side of the odds that entire time.  And that is the problem with cumulative probability.  The numbers usually catch up.

  • 4 months ago

    Lo, very,very slim. Not anywhere near 1 in 50.

  • Anonymous
    4 months ago


    I would venture to say somewhere btwn the

    odd's of living past I00 & growing beyond 7'

    tall which aren't that likely @ all my dude-cuz!


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  • 4 months ago

    The odds cannot be calculated without knowing what the house rules are for the game, how well you play, and how you determine the size of each bet.

    Remember the dealer will win over half of blackjack hands played, even if you play perfectly, because you can win more than your original bet on some hands. 

  • 4 months ago

    Re-edit: gah I forgot Y!A doesn't let me do single-spacing. Fixed.

    Cliff notes: 1.88% or 1/53 in Baccarat

    Edit - alright I'll just do some math.

    I said blackjack would be a bad choice primarily because you'd either have to sacrifice EV by going all-in each hand (thus giving up your option to split or double down), or probably worse, bet half your stack. So instead I'll do some math for a different game.

    Baccarat banker bet would be a good choice. It has a low house edge and a >50% chance of winning a non-tied hand. The payout is slightly under 1:1 but your goal of 50x isn't a power of 2 anyway.

    Idk how many decks is typical but let's say you're playing 8 decks. Using the chart at wizardofodds, I see that the chance of winning a non-tied hand is .50682624. Call that p, and call the chance of losing q.

    If you win 5 all-ins, you'll be at $5639. The chance of that is p^5. Your next bet will be (10k-5639)(2/1.95) = 4473. If you win that, you're at 10k. If you lose it, you're down to 1166 and then if you win your next 3 bets, you're up to 8646. And so on, the process can potentially continue for a very long time. However, long sequences have negligible chances, so we can get very close to the answer without an infinitely long calculation.

    The sequence will be:


    ^5=5369, bet=4473

    1166^3=8646, bet=1389

    7257, bet=2813


    8666, b=1368

    7298, b=2771


    8828, b=1202

    7626, b=2435

    5191, b=4932


    ^5=7302, b=2767


    8843, b=1187

    7656, b=2404

    5252, b=4870

    I stopped there, which is further than I needed to go. Your chance is:

    p^5(p + qp^3(

    p + q(

    p + qp(

    p + q(   

    p + qp(

    p + q(  

    p + q(    

    p + qp^5(

    p + qp(

    p + q(

    p + qp )))))))))))

    = 1.88% or about 1/53

  • Pyrus
    Lv 6
    4 months ago

    Not even close. It actually is a random variable that follows a certain probability density function. What you did with the 1 in 50 chance is multiply the outcome from the income. 200 x 50 = 10000. Unless the probability distribution happened to be EXACTLY uniform and you were winning 200 pounds with the probability of 1 / 50th root of 50, (which we all know is impossible), then you would have a 1 in 50 chance to win. 

    To learn more about it, study what Stochastic processes is, and start with what is known as the Gaussian Distribution. 

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