Anonymous asked in Arts & HumanitiesHistory · 5 months ago

During WW2, Why did Russia invade Poland from the East ?

Was it because Germany had invaded Poland from the West ?

Was there some strategic ploy here,  from Russias part ?

was this just a way to remind Germany not to underestimate Poland or was this merely a land acquisition contest ?

23 Answers

  • Anonymous
    5 months ago

    Germany and the Soviet Union agreed to divide Poland in a Non-Agression Pact, which had secret protocols that made it into an alliance.

  • Anonymous
    5 months ago

    Stalin Never trusted the Nazis taking Half of pol;and gave the Russians a small security barrier

  • ?
    Lv 4
    5 months ago

    In those days there were no rapefugees

  • 5 months ago

    Because invading from the west would have involved going clear around the world, across at least two oceans and three continents.

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  • Anonymous
    5 months ago

    The short answer is that Russia invaded Poland from the East, because she lay to the East. Poland used to be an extension of Germany, a fact vehemently denied by the Poles. The Polish language, although not quite dead, had become a second class language in Poland for centuries. Gdansk was called Danzig and Kaliningrad was called Koenigsberg and so on and had been for generations. Although the official political lines were drawn and redrawn over time, so many areas of Poland were called "East Prussia" that, by and by, Poland was essentially East Prussia. For example, the Fahrenheid family who supplied the invention of Fahrenheit degrees as a measure of temperature, were settled near Gdansk. After Stalin defeated Russia's enemies in 1945, he exiled or deported 13 million ethnic Germans from Poland. That should give you some idea of the enormity of the German ethnic presence there: that there were 13 million survivors after the millions who were killed during the Second World War. In deporting 13 million East Prussians, Stalin uprooted and eradicated a centuries-old culture. Stalin then renamed Koenigsberg Kaliningrad and Danzig Gdansk and restored the Polish language and the land to the Polish people, pretending that they'd been there all along, a free people. That was preposterous and propaganda for the truth was, they'd been subjected to the Prussian domination for hundreds of years. So the long answer is that Russia created an artificial buffer state for itself, to stretch from her Western border, all the way to the East to Schlesien, like Schtettin. 

  • JuanB
    Lv 7
    5 months ago

    Because that was how they had discussed it before hand and wrote it down.  It's the Intnet of their 1939 Molotov–Ribbentrop Pact (Non-aggression pact)

    Russia did expect they would have to face Germany in battle sooner or later.  So the pact helped to make it later, and occupying eastern Poland allowed for a bit of a land  buffer.  

  • 1465
    Lv 6
    5 months ago

    As usual, questions of this nature concern themselves with facts based on the outcome rather than look into the history of the event to understand the background.

    During the Weimar era, Germany was a political battleground. Because they were denied their own sovereignty (illegally, I might add), they had all of the earmarks of becoming a puppet-state - a fate that rested on the most powerful revolutionary party.

    While everyone was fighting for control of Germany, Hitler jumped into the fray to keep Germany in the hands of the German people.

    The Soviet Union was one of the main antagonists in the race. Stalin's aim was to spread Communism first into Germany and then through the rest of Europe - and not stopping until he had the West under the influence of Communism as well.

    The Soviets initially tried to enlist Britain in a plan to attack Germany in the summer of 1939. After learning of Britain's military weakness, Stalin chose, instead, to sign the Non-Aggression Pact to buy time until Britain could restore its military and create a western front to divide and weaken Germany.

    The Soviets wanted to go up against Germany through Czechoslovakia during the Sudetenland crisis, but Poland denied access through their country. While Hitler had Poland busy defending themselves, Stalin took advantage and invaded Poland, thereby giving them more direct access to go after Germany.

    This helped set the stage for Operation Barbarossa in 1941. Hitler has been historically accused of launching an unwarranted attack against the Soviets, but in actuality, the Soviets had been staging their forces since 1939 in preparation to attack Germany.

    Operation Barbarossa was what's known as a "pre-emptive attack" - meaning it was a defensive strategy. Hitler knew that the Soviets were poised to attack Germany - he just reacted first.

    He is quoted as saying, "When I see someone aim a gun at me, I don't wait to see what his intentions are."

  • Elaine
    Lv 7
    5 months ago

    You don't suppose geography had anything to do with it?  Russia is east of Poland. 

  • Anonymous
    5 months ago

    Hitler and Stalin signed a Pact, so Hitler would NOT be opposed by Russia, until he conquered the western European nations.

  • DON W
    Lv 7
    5 months ago

    The Soviets (Russia) and the Germans had worked out a deal where they would divide Poland between the two countries.  Later, Hitler broke the treaty and invaded the Soviet Union.  

    This is from the wikipedia:

    The Molotov–Ribbentrop Pact was a non-aggression pact between Nazi Germany and the Soviet Union that enabled those two powers to partition Poland between them. The pact was signed in Moscow on 23 August 1939 by German Foreign Minister Joachim von Ribbentrop and Soviet Foreign Minister Vyacheslav Molotov and was officially known as the Treaty of Non-Aggression between Germany and the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics.

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